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Integral inequality of length of curve [on hold]


Cauchy-Schwarz-like inequality of integralsAn integral inequalityHow to show the inequality is strict?Prove an integral inequality: $ left(int|f|^2dxright)^2le 4left(int|xf(x)|^2dxright)left(int|f'|^2dxright) $A tricky integral inequalityIntegral inequality problem (cauchy-schwarz)Is this integral inequality valid for all functions?An integral inequality concerning compositionsIntegral inequality with a strange conditionAn inequality involving integrals and square root













7












$begingroup$


Let $f:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbb{R}$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.





I think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try Cauchy-Schwarz inequality but nothing conclution










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$endgroup$



put on hold as off-topic by user21820, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson, Alex Provost 6 hours ago


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – user21820, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson, Alex Provost

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 3




    $begingroup$
    the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    yesterday








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    22 hours ago
















7












$begingroup$


Let $f:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbb{R}$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.





I think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try Cauchy-Schwarz inequality but nothing conclution










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



put on hold as off-topic by user21820, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson, Alex Provost 6 hours ago


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – user21820, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson, Alex Provost

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 3




    $begingroup$
    the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    yesterday








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    22 hours ago














7












7








7


1



$begingroup$


Let $f:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbb{R}$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.





I think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try Cauchy-Schwarz inequality but nothing conclution










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $f:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbb{R}$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.





I think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try Cauchy-Schwarz inequality but nothing conclution







real-analysis inequality arc-length






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 16 hours ago









Martin Sleziak

44.8k10119272




44.8k10119272










asked yesterday









RAM_3RRAM_3R

616214




616214




put on hold as off-topic by user21820, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson, Alex Provost 6 hours ago


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – user21820, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson, Alex Provost

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







put on hold as off-topic by user21820, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson, Alex Provost 6 hours ago


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – user21820, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson, Alex Provost

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    yesterday








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    22 hours ago














  • 3




    $begingroup$
    the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    yesterday








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    22 hours ago








3




3




$begingroup$
the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
$endgroup$
– Conrad
yesterday






$begingroup$
the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
$endgroup$
– Conrad
yesterday






1




1




$begingroup$
@Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
yesterday




$begingroup$
@Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
yesterday












$begingroup$
This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
$endgroup$
– Conrad
22 hours ago




$begingroup$
This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
$endgroup$
– Conrad
22 hours ago










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















15












$begingroup$

Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt{1+y^2}$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



$$ frac{1}{b-a} int_{a}^{b} sqrt{1 + f'(x)^2} , mathrm{d}x geq sqrt{1 + left(frac{1}{b-a}int_{a}^{b} f'(x) , mathrm{d}xright)^2} = sqrt{1 + left(frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b-a} right)^2}. $$



Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This really nice!
    $endgroup$
    – Nastar
    22 hours ago



















13












$begingroup$

Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
$$
left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
$$
Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
$$begin{align*}
left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt{(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}
end{align*}$$
and
$$
int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2} dx.
$$
Now, the desired inequality follows.

Note: The equality holds when $text{arg}(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $frac{f'(x)}{1}=f'(x)$ is constant.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    (+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbb{C}$ rather than $mathbb{R}^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
    $endgroup$
    – Sangchul Lee
    22 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    22 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    20 hours ago



















2












$begingroup$

An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt{1-f'(x)}ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P={a,x_1,cdots,x_{n-2},b}$.



The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



$(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt{(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2}$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



And this is true for $textit{any}$ partition $P$.



But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt{1+frac{Delta y_i}{Delta x_i}}Delta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt{1+f'(x)}$.



To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}dx- sum_isqrt{1+f'(c_i)}Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_{i-1}$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



$(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt{1+f'(c)}Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}+epsilon.$



Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



Subsitute it into the integral:



$l(t)=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'+tphi')^2}dx$.



Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



$0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfrac{f'phi'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}}dx$.



After an integration by parts, we get



$dfrac{f'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}} = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



    Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt{(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$






    share|cite|improve this answer








    New contributor




    se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.






    $endgroup$




















      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      15












      $begingroup$

      Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt{1+y^2}$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



      $$ frac{1}{b-a} int_{a}^{b} sqrt{1 + f'(x)^2} , mathrm{d}x geq sqrt{1 + left(frac{1}{b-a}int_{a}^{b} f'(x) , mathrm{d}xright)^2} = sqrt{1 + left(frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b-a} right)^2}. $$



      Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$









      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This really nice!
        $endgroup$
        – Nastar
        22 hours ago
















      15












      $begingroup$

      Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt{1+y^2}$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



      $$ frac{1}{b-a} int_{a}^{b} sqrt{1 + f'(x)^2} , mathrm{d}x geq sqrt{1 + left(frac{1}{b-a}int_{a}^{b} f'(x) , mathrm{d}xright)^2} = sqrt{1 + left(frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b-a} right)^2}. $$



      Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$









      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This really nice!
        $endgroup$
        – Nastar
        22 hours ago














      15












      15








      15





      $begingroup$

      Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt{1+y^2}$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



      $$ frac{1}{b-a} int_{a}^{b} sqrt{1 + f'(x)^2} , mathrm{d}x geq sqrt{1 + left(frac{1}{b-a}int_{a}^{b} f'(x) , mathrm{d}xright)^2} = sqrt{1 + left(frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b-a} right)^2}. $$



      Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$



      Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt{1+y^2}$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



      $$ frac{1}{b-a} int_{a}^{b} sqrt{1 + f'(x)^2} , mathrm{d}x geq sqrt{1 + left(frac{1}{b-a}int_{a}^{b} f'(x) , mathrm{d}xright)^2} = sqrt{1 + left(frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b-a} right)^2}. $$



      Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered 23 hours ago









      Sangchul LeeSangchul Lee

      95.4k12170278




      95.4k12170278








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This really nice!
        $endgroup$
        – Nastar
        22 hours ago














      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This really nice!
        $endgroup$
        – Nastar
        22 hours ago








      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      This really nice!
      $endgroup$
      – Nastar
      22 hours ago




      $begingroup$
      This really nice!
      $endgroup$
      – Nastar
      22 hours ago











      13












      $begingroup$

      Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
      $$
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
      $$
      Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
      $$begin{align*}
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt{(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}
      end{align*}$$
      and
      $$
      int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2} dx.
      $$
      Now, the desired inequality follows.

      Note: The equality holds when $text{arg}(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $frac{f'(x)}{1}=f'(x)$ is constant.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$









      • 1




        $begingroup$
        (+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbb{C}$ rather than $mathbb{R}^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
        $endgroup$
        – Sangchul Lee
        22 hours ago












      • $begingroup$
        Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
        $endgroup$
        – Song
        22 hours ago








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
        $endgroup$
        – Matematleta
        20 hours ago
















      13












      $begingroup$

      Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
      $$
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
      $$
      Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
      $$begin{align*}
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt{(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}
      end{align*}$$
      and
      $$
      int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2} dx.
      $$
      Now, the desired inequality follows.

      Note: The equality holds when $text{arg}(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $frac{f'(x)}{1}=f'(x)$ is constant.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$









      • 1




        $begingroup$
        (+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbb{C}$ rather than $mathbb{R}^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
        $endgroup$
        – Sangchul Lee
        22 hours ago












      • $begingroup$
        Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
        $endgroup$
        – Song
        22 hours ago








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
        $endgroup$
        – Matematleta
        20 hours ago














      13












      13








      13





      $begingroup$

      Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
      $$
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
      $$
      Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
      $$begin{align*}
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt{(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}
      end{align*}$$
      and
      $$
      int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2} dx.
      $$
      Now, the desired inequality follows.

      Note: The equality holds when $text{arg}(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $frac{f'(x)}{1}=f'(x)$ is constant.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
      $$
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
      $$
      Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
      $$begin{align*}
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt{(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}
      end{align*}$$
      and
      $$
      int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2} dx.
      $$
      Now, the desired inequality follows.

      Note: The equality holds when $text{arg}(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $frac{f'(x)}{1}=f'(x)$ is constant.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited 15 hours ago

























      answered 22 hours ago









      SongSong

      16.4k1741




      16.4k1741








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        (+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbb{C}$ rather than $mathbb{R}^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
        $endgroup$
        – Sangchul Lee
        22 hours ago












      • $begingroup$
        Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
        $endgroup$
        – Song
        22 hours ago








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
        $endgroup$
        – Matematleta
        20 hours ago














      • 1




        $begingroup$
        (+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbb{C}$ rather than $mathbb{R}^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
        $endgroup$
        – Sangchul Lee
        22 hours ago












      • $begingroup$
        Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
        $endgroup$
        – Song
        22 hours ago








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
        $endgroup$
        – Matematleta
        20 hours ago








      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      (+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbb{C}$ rather than $mathbb{R}^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
      $endgroup$
      – Sangchul Lee
      22 hours ago






      $begingroup$
      (+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbb{C}$ rather than $mathbb{R}^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
      $endgroup$
      – Sangchul Lee
      22 hours ago














      $begingroup$
      Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
      $endgroup$
      – Song
      22 hours ago






      $begingroup$
      Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
      $endgroup$
      – Song
      22 hours ago






      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
      $endgroup$
      – Matematleta
      20 hours ago




      $begingroup$
      This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
      $endgroup$
      – Matematleta
      20 hours ago











      2












      $begingroup$

      An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt{1-f'(x)}ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



      If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



      Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P={a,x_1,cdots,x_{n-2},b}$.



      The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



      $(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt{(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2}$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



      And this is true for $textit{any}$ partition $P$.



      But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt{1+frac{Delta y_i}{Delta x_i}}Delta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt{1+f'(x)}$.



      To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}dx- sum_isqrt{1+f'(c_i)}Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_{i-1}$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



      $(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt{1+f'(c)}Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}+epsilon.$



      Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



      For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



      Subsitute it into the integral:



      $l(t)=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'+tphi')^2}dx$.



      Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



      $0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfrac{f'phi'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}}dx$.



      After an integration by parts, we get



      $dfrac{f'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}} = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        2












        $begingroup$

        An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt{1-f'(x)}ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



        If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



        Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P={a,x_1,cdots,x_{n-2},b}$.



        The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



        $(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt{(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2}$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



        And this is true for $textit{any}$ partition $P$.



        But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt{1+frac{Delta y_i}{Delta x_i}}Delta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt{1+f'(x)}$.



        To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}dx- sum_isqrt{1+f'(c_i)}Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_{i-1}$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



        $(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt{1+f'(c)}Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}+epsilon.$



        Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



        For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



        Subsitute it into the integral:



        $l(t)=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'+tphi')^2}dx$.



        Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



        $0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfrac{f'phi'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}}dx$.



        After an integration by parts, we get



        $dfrac{f'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}} = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt{1-f'(x)}ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



          If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



          Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P={a,x_1,cdots,x_{n-2},b}$.



          The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



          $(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt{(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2}$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



          And this is true for $textit{any}$ partition $P$.



          But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt{1+frac{Delta y_i}{Delta x_i}}Delta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt{1+f'(x)}$.



          To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}dx- sum_isqrt{1+f'(c_i)}Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_{i-1}$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



          $(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt{1+f'(c)}Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}+epsilon.$



          Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



          For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



          Subsitute it into the integral:



          $l(t)=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'+tphi')^2}dx$.



          Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



          $0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfrac{f'phi'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}}dx$.



          After an integration by parts, we get



          $dfrac{f'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}} = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt{1-f'(x)}ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



          If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



          Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P={a,x_1,cdots,x_{n-2},b}$.



          The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



          $(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt{(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2}$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



          And this is true for $textit{any}$ partition $P$.



          But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt{1+frac{Delta y_i}{Delta x_i}}Delta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt{1+f'(x)}$.



          To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}dx- sum_isqrt{1+f'(c_i)}Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_{i-1}$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



          $(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt{1+f'(c)}Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}+epsilon.$



          Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



          For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



          Subsitute it into the integral:



          $l(t)=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'+tphi')^2}dx$.



          Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



          $0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfrac{f'phi'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}}dx$.



          After an integration by parts, we get



          $dfrac{f'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}} = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 23 hours ago

























          answered yesterday









          MatematletaMatematleta

          11.5k2920




          11.5k2920























              0












              $begingroup$

              Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



              Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt{(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$






              share|cite|improve this answer








              New contributor




              se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.






              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



                Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt{(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$






                share|cite|improve this answer








                New contributor




                se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                Check out our Code of Conduct.






                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



                  Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt{(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$






                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  New contributor




                  se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.






                  $endgroup$



                  Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



                  Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt{(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$







                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  New contributor




                  se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.









                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer






                  New contributor




                  se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.









                  answered yesterday









                  se2018se2018

                  874




                  874




                  New contributor




                  se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.





                  New contributor





                  se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.






                  se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.















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