Show that there is no other isomorphimFinding counter examples for two statementsQuasiorders and their...

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Show that there is no other isomorphim


Finding counter examples for two statementsQuasiorders and their associated partial ordersCountable sets: Show there exists a bijectionIs the identity function the only order-preserving isomorphism between a well-ordered set and itself?Bijection from $mathbb{R}^n$ to $mathbb{R}$ that preserves lexicographic order?Mapping (any, not only bijection) from $mathbb{R}^2$ to $mathbb{R}$ that preserves lexicographic order?Sets which are order-isomorphic to the (extended) rationals$mathbb{N}timesmathbb{Q}$ isomorphic to $mathbb{Q}timesmathbb{N}$Extension of order-preserving bijection from rationals to reals.Order Preserving Isomorphism from $(mathbb{N},leq)$ to $(mathbb{N},leq)$













4












$begingroup$


Recall: Let $(X,leq)$, $(Y,leq ')$ be two partially ordered sets. Let $f:Xrightarrow Y$ be a function such that



$aleq b rightarrow f(a)leq 'f(b)$



we say $f$ preserves order relation.



If $f$ is a bijection and $aleq b iff f(a)leq 'f(b)$ fir any $a,bin X$ we say $f$ is an order isomorphism.




  • Let us define $leq$ on $mathbb{N}$ as follows:


$xleq y iff$ $x$ divides $y$



Find all order preserving isomorphism from $(mathbb{N},leq)$ to $(mathbb{N},leq)$.



Since $1$ divides $1$, $2$ divides $2$, ..., then $1leq 1$, $2leq 2$,...
, that is $Id_{mathbb{N}}$.



If $n$ is a natural number, let $n_0^{m_0}cdots n_{k-1}^{m_{k-1}}$ be the prime factorization.



Let $g:Bbb{Pto P}$ a bijective function(where $Bbb P$ is the set of primes).



Then $f(n)=fleft(n_0^{m_0}cdots n_{k-1}^{m_{k-1}}right)=gleft(n_0right)^{m_0}cdots gleft(n_{k-1}right)^{m_{k-1}}$.



My question is: How can I show that there is no other isomorphism?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What is $leq'$ here, the common order for the naturals? If so, $id$ is not an iso, since $2 leq' 3$ but $2 not leq 3$ (and by the why, it may be easier on the eyes to choose $leq$ for the usual order rather than $leq'$).
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    17 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Actually, I don't think so. I got this from my lecturer.
    $endgroup$
    – PozcuKushimotoStreet
    17 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I was misled by this as well. Apparently this is about automorphisms of this partially ordered set, which is not a well-ordering.
    $endgroup$
    – Carsten S
    17 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    @CarstenS Okey, thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – PozcuKushimotoStreet
    17 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @PozcuKushimotoStreet if I am not mistaken, my last edit provides a solution. Since I only use the usual order of the naturals once (on the exponents $m_i,n_i$, to be precise), to ease on the notation I have used $leq$ instead of $leq'$ for the division order.
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    15 hours ago
















4












$begingroup$


Recall: Let $(X,leq)$, $(Y,leq ')$ be two partially ordered sets. Let $f:Xrightarrow Y$ be a function such that



$aleq b rightarrow f(a)leq 'f(b)$



we say $f$ preserves order relation.



If $f$ is a bijection and $aleq b iff f(a)leq 'f(b)$ fir any $a,bin X$ we say $f$ is an order isomorphism.




  • Let us define $leq$ on $mathbb{N}$ as follows:


$xleq y iff$ $x$ divides $y$



Find all order preserving isomorphism from $(mathbb{N},leq)$ to $(mathbb{N},leq)$.



Since $1$ divides $1$, $2$ divides $2$, ..., then $1leq 1$, $2leq 2$,...
, that is $Id_{mathbb{N}}$.



If $n$ is a natural number, let $n_0^{m_0}cdots n_{k-1}^{m_{k-1}}$ be the prime factorization.



Let $g:Bbb{Pto P}$ a bijective function(where $Bbb P$ is the set of primes).



Then $f(n)=fleft(n_0^{m_0}cdots n_{k-1}^{m_{k-1}}right)=gleft(n_0right)^{m_0}cdots gleft(n_{k-1}right)^{m_{k-1}}$.



My question is: How can I show that there is no other isomorphism?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What is $leq'$ here, the common order for the naturals? If so, $id$ is not an iso, since $2 leq' 3$ but $2 not leq 3$ (and by the why, it may be easier on the eyes to choose $leq$ for the usual order rather than $leq'$).
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    17 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Actually, I don't think so. I got this from my lecturer.
    $endgroup$
    – PozcuKushimotoStreet
    17 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I was misled by this as well. Apparently this is about automorphisms of this partially ordered set, which is not a well-ordering.
    $endgroup$
    – Carsten S
    17 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    @CarstenS Okey, thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – PozcuKushimotoStreet
    17 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @PozcuKushimotoStreet if I am not mistaken, my last edit provides a solution. Since I only use the usual order of the naturals once (on the exponents $m_i,n_i$, to be precise), to ease on the notation I have used $leq$ instead of $leq'$ for the division order.
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    15 hours ago














4












4








4


1



$begingroup$


Recall: Let $(X,leq)$, $(Y,leq ')$ be two partially ordered sets. Let $f:Xrightarrow Y$ be a function such that



$aleq b rightarrow f(a)leq 'f(b)$



we say $f$ preserves order relation.



If $f$ is a bijection and $aleq b iff f(a)leq 'f(b)$ fir any $a,bin X$ we say $f$ is an order isomorphism.




  • Let us define $leq$ on $mathbb{N}$ as follows:


$xleq y iff$ $x$ divides $y$



Find all order preserving isomorphism from $(mathbb{N},leq)$ to $(mathbb{N},leq)$.



Since $1$ divides $1$, $2$ divides $2$, ..., then $1leq 1$, $2leq 2$,...
, that is $Id_{mathbb{N}}$.



If $n$ is a natural number, let $n_0^{m_0}cdots n_{k-1}^{m_{k-1}}$ be the prime factorization.



Let $g:Bbb{Pto P}$ a bijective function(where $Bbb P$ is the set of primes).



Then $f(n)=fleft(n_0^{m_0}cdots n_{k-1}^{m_{k-1}}right)=gleft(n_0right)^{m_0}cdots gleft(n_{k-1}right)^{m_{k-1}}$.



My question is: How can I show that there is no other isomorphism?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Recall: Let $(X,leq)$, $(Y,leq ')$ be two partially ordered sets. Let $f:Xrightarrow Y$ be a function such that



$aleq b rightarrow f(a)leq 'f(b)$



we say $f$ preserves order relation.



If $f$ is a bijection and $aleq b iff f(a)leq 'f(b)$ fir any $a,bin X$ we say $f$ is an order isomorphism.




  • Let us define $leq$ on $mathbb{N}$ as follows:


$xleq y iff$ $x$ divides $y$



Find all order preserving isomorphism from $(mathbb{N},leq)$ to $(mathbb{N},leq)$.



Since $1$ divides $1$, $2$ divides $2$, ..., then $1leq 1$, $2leq 2$,...
, that is $Id_{mathbb{N}}$.



If $n$ is a natural number, let $n_0^{m_0}cdots n_{k-1}^{m_{k-1}}$ be the prime factorization.



Let $g:Bbb{Pto P}$ a bijective function(where $Bbb P$ is the set of primes).



Then $f(n)=fleft(n_0^{m_0}cdots n_{k-1}^{m_{k-1}}right)=gleft(n_0right)^{m_0}cdots gleft(n_{k-1}right)^{m_{k-1}}$.



My question is: How can I show that there is no other isomorphism?







elementary-set-theory order-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 17 hours ago









Carsten S

7,23311436




7,23311436










asked 17 hours ago









PozcuKushimotoStreetPozcuKushimotoStreet

1,307923




1,307923








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What is $leq'$ here, the common order for the naturals? If so, $id$ is not an iso, since $2 leq' 3$ but $2 not leq 3$ (and by the why, it may be easier on the eyes to choose $leq$ for the usual order rather than $leq'$).
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    17 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Actually, I don't think so. I got this from my lecturer.
    $endgroup$
    – PozcuKushimotoStreet
    17 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I was misled by this as well. Apparently this is about automorphisms of this partially ordered set, which is not a well-ordering.
    $endgroup$
    – Carsten S
    17 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    @CarstenS Okey, thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – PozcuKushimotoStreet
    17 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @PozcuKushimotoStreet if I am not mistaken, my last edit provides a solution. Since I only use the usual order of the naturals once (on the exponents $m_i,n_i$, to be precise), to ease on the notation I have used $leq$ instead of $leq'$ for the division order.
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    15 hours ago














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What is $leq'$ here, the common order for the naturals? If so, $id$ is not an iso, since $2 leq' 3$ but $2 not leq 3$ (and by the why, it may be easier on the eyes to choose $leq$ for the usual order rather than $leq'$).
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    17 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Actually, I don't think so. I got this from my lecturer.
    $endgroup$
    – PozcuKushimotoStreet
    17 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I was misled by this as well. Apparently this is about automorphisms of this partially ordered set, which is not a well-ordering.
    $endgroup$
    – Carsten S
    17 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    @CarstenS Okey, thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – PozcuKushimotoStreet
    17 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @PozcuKushimotoStreet if I am not mistaken, my last edit provides a solution. Since I only use the usual order of the naturals once (on the exponents $m_i,n_i$, to be precise), to ease on the notation I have used $leq$ instead of $leq'$ for the division order.
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    15 hours ago








1




1




$begingroup$
What is $leq'$ here, the common order for the naturals? If so, $id$ is not an iso, since $2 leq' 3$ but $2 not leq 3$ (and by the why, it may be easier on the eyes to choose $leq$ for the usual order rather than $leq'$).
$endgroup$
– Guido A.
17 hours ago




$begingroup$
What is $leq'$ here, the common order for the naturals? If so, $id$ is not an iso, since $2 leq' 3$ but $2 not leq 3$ (and by the why, it may be easier on the eyes to choose $leq$ for the usual order rather than $leq'$).
$endgroup$
– Guido A.
17 hours ago












$begingroup$
Actually, I don't think so. I got this from my lecturer.
$endgroup$
– PozcuKushimotoStreet
17 hours ago




$begingroup$
Actually, I don't think so. I got this from my lecturer.
$endgroup$
– PozcuKushimotoStreet
17 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
I was misled by this as well. Apparently this is about automorphisms of this partially ordered set, which is not a well-ordering.
$endgroup$
– Carsten S
17 hours ago






$begingroup$
I was misled by this as well. Apparently this is about automorphisms of this partially ordered set, which is not a well-ordering.
$endgroup$
– Carsten S
17 hours ago














$begingroup$
@CarstenS Okey, thanks.
$endgroup$
– PozcuKushimotoStreet
17 hours ago




$begingroup$
@CarstenS Okey, thanks.
$endgroup$
– PozcuKushimotoStreet
17 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
@PozcuKushimotoStreet if I am not mistaken, my last edit provides a solution. Since I only use the usual order of the naturals once (on the exponents $m_i,n_i$, to be precise), to ease on the notation I have used $leq$ instead of $leq'$ for the division order.
$endgroup$
– Guido A.
15 hours ago




$begingroup$
@PozcuKushimotoStreet if I am not mistaken, my last edit provides a solution. Since I only use the usual order of the naturals once (on the exponents $m_i,n_i$, to be precise), to ease on the notation I have used $leq$ instead of $leq'$ for the division order.
$endgroup$
– Guido A.
15 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Let $g$ be an automorphism. Then for each prime $p$ we have $1 < p$ and thus $1 < g(p)$. If $g(p)$ were not prime, we'd have some element $1 < x < g(p)$ and thus $1 < g^{-1}(x) < p$ which is absurd. Hence each prime $p$ is sent to another prime $s(p)$. Now, we claim that
$$
g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}) = s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k} tag{1}
$$



and since these are in fact automorphisms, this characterizes them. In effect, we can do induction on the maximum exponent of a prime decomposition of $n in mathbb{N}$. If $n = 1$ or $n$ prime, we have already proved this. Now take $n = p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k} in mathbb{N}$ and without loss of generality, let's assume $n_1 leq dots leq n_k$. Since $ p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k-1} < p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}$, then



$$
s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{(n_k-1)} = g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{(n_k-1)}) < g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k})
$$



and so $g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}) = s(p_1)^{m_1} cdots s(p_k)^{m_k}$ with $m_i geq n_i$. We ought to see that $m_i = n_i$ for all $i$. If for some $j$ it would be $m_j > n_j$, then we would have that



$$
s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{(n_k-1)} < s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k} < s(p_1)^{m_k} cdots s(p_k)^{m_k}
$$



and therefore applying $g^{-1}$ we get that



$$
p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{(n_k-1)} < g^{-1}(s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k}) < p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}.
$$



which is absurd. This concludes the proof of $(1)$ and so autmorphisms correspond to bijections of $mathbb{P}$, and via their enumeration, the latter correspond to bijections of $mathbb{N}$. In other words, if $p_n$ in the $n$-th prime and we define



$$
begin{align}
Gamma : operatorname{Aut}(&mathbb{N}, |) longrightarrow mathbb{S}(mathbb{P}) longrightarrow mathbb{S}(mathbb{N})\
& g longmapsto (p mapsto g(p)) mapsto s_g
end{align}
$$



with $s_g(m) = n$ iff $g(p_m) = p_n$, then $Gamma$ is bijective.



Edit: according to comments the question concerns automorphisms of the order induced by division, hence what follows does not apply.



To ease on the notation, I will use $U = (mathbb{N},leq)$ for the naturals with the usual order and $D = (mathbb{N},leq')$ for the naturals with the order given by division. Note that any function $g : U to D$ which verifies $x leq y Rightarrow g(x) leq' g(y)$ is monotone as a function $tilde{g}: U to U$, because $x | y$ implies $x leq y$. Thus if $g$ were an isomorphism, we would have a bijective monotone function $tilde{g} : U to U$ with $g(n) = tilde{g}(n)$. As we have ruled out in the comments, as a function we have $g neq id$ and so by well ordering of the naturals (with respect to the order on $U$),



$$
l := min {n : g(n) neq n}
$$



is well defined, and so $g(l) neq l$. By surjectivity, $l = g(k)$ and thus $k neq l$. By minimality, since $k neq g(k)$ necessarily $l < k$ and so $g(l) < g(k) = l$. By minimality once again, this says that $g(g(l)) = g(l) = g(g(k))$ and so by injectivity, we get that $g(l) = g(k) = l$, and that is absurd. Since the contradiction came from assuming that such $g$ existed, no isomorphism between $U$ and $D$ exists.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for answer and comments...
    $endgroup$
    – PozcuKushimotoStreet
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @PozcuKushimotoStreet glad I could help!
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    6 hours ago



















2












$begingroup$

The key insight is that for the order you defined, a prime number $p$ has the property that from $1 le x le p$ follows $x=1$ or $x=p$. In addition, no other number (besides 1, which is an obvious fixpoint of any isomorphism) fullfills that condition. So by necessitiy, any order isomorphism must bijectively map primes to primes.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













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    2 Answers
    2






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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    2












    $begingroup$

    Let $g$ be an automorphism. Then for each prime $p$ we have $1 < p$ and thus $1 < g(p)$. If $g(p)$ were not prime, we'd have some element $1 < x < g(p)$ and thus $1 < g^{-1}(x) < p$ which is absurd. Hence each prime $p$ is sent to another prime $s(p)$. Now, we claim that
    $$
    g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}) = s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k} tag{1}
    $$



    and since these are in fact automorphisms, this characterizes them. In effect, we can do induction on the maximum exponent of a prime decomposition of $n in mathbb{N}$. If $n = 1$ or $n$ prime, we have already proved this. Now take $n = p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k} in mathbb{N}$ and without loss of generality, let's assume $n_1 leq dots leq n_k$. Since $ p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k-1} < p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}$, then



    $$
    s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{(n_k-1)} = g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{(n_k-1)}) < g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k})
    $$



    and so $g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}) = s(p_1)^{m_1} cdots s(p_k)^{m_k}$ with $m_i geq n_i$. We ought to see that $m_i = n_i$ for all $i$. If for some $j$ it would be $m_j > n_j$, then we would have that



    $$
    s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{(n_k-1)} < s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k} < s(p_1)^{m_k} cdots s(p_k)^{m_k}
    $$



    and therefore applying $g^{-1}$ we get that



    $$
    p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{(n_k-1)} < g^{-1}(s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k}) < p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}.
    $$



    which is absurd. This concludes the proof of $(1)$ and so autmorphisms correspond to bijections of $mathbb{P}$, and via their enumeration, the latter correspond to bijections of $mathbb{N}$. In other words, if $p_n$ in the $n$-th prime and we define



    $$
    begin{align}
    Gamma : operatorname{Aut}(&mathbb{N}, |) longrightarrow mathbb{S}(mathbb{P}) longrightarrow mathbb{S}(mathbb{N})\
    & g longmapsto (p mapsto g(p)) mapsto s_g
    end{align}
    $$



    with $s_g(m) = n$ iff $g(p_m) = p_n$, then $Gamma$ is bijective.



    Edit: according to comments the question concerns automorphisms of the order induced by division, hence what follows does not apply.



    To ease on the notation, I will use $U = (mathbb{N},leq)$ for the naturals with the usual order and $D = (mathbb{N},leq')$ for the naturals with the order given by division. Note that any function $g : U to D$ which verifies $x leq y Rightarrow g(x) leq' g(y)$ is monotone as a function $tilde{g}: U to U$, because $x | y$ implies $x leq y$. Thus if $g$ were an isomorphism, we would have a bijective monotone function $tilde{g} : U to U$ with $g(n) = tilde{g}(n)$. As we have ruled out in the comments, as a function we have $g neq id$ and so by well ordering of the naturals (with respect to the order on $U$),



    $$
    l := min {n : g(n) neq n}
    $$



    is well defined, and so $g(l) neq l$. By surjectivity, $l = g(k)$ and thus $k neq l$. By minimality, since $k neq g(k)$ necessarily $l < k$ and so $g(l) < g(k) = l$. By minimality once again, this says that $g(g(l)) = g(l) = g(g(k))$ and so by injectivity, we get that $g(l) = g(k) = l$, and that is absurd. Since the contradiction came from assuming that such $g$ existed, no isomorphism between $U$ and $D$ exists.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for answer and comments...
      $endgroup$
      – PozcuKushimotoStreet
      9 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      @PozcuKushimotoStreet glad I could help!
      $endgroup$
      – Guido A.
      6 hours ago
















    2












    $begingroup$

    Let $g$ be an automorphism. Then for each prime $p$ we have $1 < p$ and thus $1 < g(p)$. If $g(p)$ were not prime, we'd have some element $1 < x < g(p)$ and thus $1 < g^{-1}(x) < p$ which is absurd. Hence each prime $p$ is sent to another prime $s(p)$. Now, we claim that
    $$
    g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}) = s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k} tag{1}
    $$



    and since these are in fact automorphisms, this characterizes them. In effect, we can do induction on the maximum exponent of a prime decomposition of $n in mathbb{N}$. If $n = 1$ or $n$ prime, we have already proved this. Now take $n = p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k} in mathbb{N}$ and without loss of generality, let's assume $n_1 leq dots leq n_k$. Since $ p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k-1} < p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}$, then



    $$
    s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{(n_k-1)} = g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{(n_k-1)}) < g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k})
    $$



    and so $g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}) = s(p_1)^{m_1} cdots s(p_k)^{m_k}$ with $m_i geq n_i$. We ought to see that $m_i = n_i$ for all $i$. If for some $j$ it would be $m_j > n_j$, then we would have that



    $$
    s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{(n_k-1)} < s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k} < s(p_1)^{m_k} cdots s(p_k)^{m_k}
    $$



    and therefore applying $g^{-1}$ we get that



    $$
    p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{(n_k-1)} < g^{-1}(s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k}) < p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}.
    $$



    which is absurd. This concludes the proof of $(1)$ and so autmorphisms correspond to bijections of $mathbb{P}$, and via their enumeration, the latter correspond to bijections of $mathbb{N}$. In other words, if $p_n$ in the $n$-th prime and we define



    $$
    begin{align}
    Gamma : operatorname{Aut}(&mathbb{N}, |) longrightarrow mathbb{S}(mathbb{P}) longrightarrow mathbb{S}(mathbb{N})\
    & g longmapsto (p mapsto g(p)) mapsto s_g
    end{align}
    $$



    with $s_g(m) = n$ iff $g(p_m) = p_n$, then $Gamma$ is bijective.



    Edit: according to comments the question concerns automorphisms of the order induced by division, hence what follows does not apply.



    To ease on the notation, I will use $U = (mathbb{N},leq)$ for the naturals with the usual order and $D = (mathbb{N},leq')$ for the naturals with the order given by division. Note that any function $g : U to D$ which verifies $x leq y Rightarrow g(x) leq' g(y)$ is monotone as a function $tilde{g}: U to U$, because $x | y$ implies $x leq y$. Thus if $g$ were an isomorphism, we would have a bijective monotone function $tilde{g} : U to U$ with $g(n) = tilde{g}(n)$. As we have ruled out in the comments, as a function we have $g neq id$ and so by well ordering of the naturals (with respect to the order on $U$),



    $$
    l := min {n : g(n) neq n}
    $$



    is well defined, and so $g(l) neq l$. By surjectivity, $l = g(k)$ and thus $k neq l$. By minimality, since $k neq g(k)$ necessarily $l < k$ and so $g(l) < g(k) = l$. By minimality once again, this says that $g(g(l)) = g(l) = g(g(k))$ and so by injectivity, we get that $g(l) = g(k) = l$, and that is absurd. Since the contradiction came from assuming that such $g$ existed, no isomorphism between $U$ and $D$ exists.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for answer and comments...
      $endgroup$
      – PozcuKushimotoStreet
      9 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      @PozcuKushimotoStreet glad I could help!
      $endgroup$
      – Guido A.
      6 hours ago














    2












    2








    2





    $begingroup$

    Let $g$ be an automorphism. Then for each prime $p$ we have $1 < p$ and thus $1 < g(p)$. If $g(p)$ were not prime, we'd have some element $1 < x < g(p)$ and thus $1 < g^{-1}(x) < p$ which is absurd. Hence each prime $p$ is sent to another prime $s(p)$. Now, we claim that
    $$
    g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}) = s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k} tag{1}
    $$



    and since these are in fact automorphisms, this characterizes them. In effect, we can do induction on the maximum exponent of a prime decomposition of $n in mathbb{N}$. If $n = 1$ or $n$ prime, we have already proved this. Now take $n = p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k} in mathbb{N}$ and without loss of generality, let's assume $n_1 leq dots leq n_k$. Since $ p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k-1} < p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}$, then



    $$
    s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{(n_k-1)} = g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{(n_k-1)}) < g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k})
    $$



    and so $g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}) = s(p_1)^{m_1} cdots s(p_k)^{m_k}$ with $m_i geq n_i$. We ought to see that $m_i = n_i$ for all $i$. If for some $j$ it would be $m_j > n_j$, then we would have that



    $$
    s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{(n_k-1)} < s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k} < s(p_1)^{m_k} cdots s(p_k)^{m_k}
    $$



    and therefore applying $g^{-1}$ we get that



    $$
    p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{(n_k-1)} < g^{-1}(s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k}) < p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}.
    $$



    which is absurd. This concludes the proof of $(1)$ and so autmorphisms correspond to bijections of $mathbb{P}$, and via their enumeration, the latter correspond to bijections of $mathbb{N}$. In other words, if $p_n$ in the $n$-th prime and we define



    $$
    begin{align}
    Gamma : operatorname{Aut}(&mathbb{N}, |) longrightarrow mathbb{S}(mathbb{P}) longrightarrow mathbb{S}(mathbb{N})\
    & g longmapsto (p mapsto g(p)) mapsto s_g
    end{align}
    $$



    with $s_g(m) = n$ iff $g(p_m) = p_n$, then $Gamma$ is bijective.



    Edit: according to comments the question concerns automorphisms of the order induced by division, hence what follows does not apply.



    To ease on the notation, I will use $U = (mathbb{N},leq)$ for the naturals with the usual order and $D = (mathbb{N},leq')$ for the naturals with the order given by division. Note that any function $g : U to D$ which verifies $x leq y Rightarrow g(x) leq' g(y)$ is monotone as a function $tilde{g}: U to U$, because $x | y$ implies $x leq y$. Thus if $g$ were an isomorphism, we would have a bijective monotone function $tilde{g} : U to U$ with $g(n) = tilde{g}(n)$. As we have ruled out in the comments, as a function we have $g neq id$ and so by well ordering of the naturals (with respect to the order on $U$),



    $$
    l := min {n : g(n) neq n}
    $$



    is well defined, and so $g(l) neq l$. By surjectivity, $l = g(k)$ and thus $k neq l$. By minimality, since $k neq g(k)$ necessarily $l < k$ and so $g(l) < g(k) = l$. By minimality once again, this says that $g(g(l)) = g(l) = g(g(k))$ and so by injectivity, we get that $g(l) = g(k) = l$, and that is absurd. Since the contradiction came from assuming that such $g$ existed, no isomorphism between $U$ and $D$ exists.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Let $g$ be an automorphism. Then for each prime $p$ we have $1 < p$ and thus $1 < g(p)$. If $g(p)$ were not prime, we'd have some element $1 < x < g(p)$ and thus $1 < g^{-1}(x) < p$ which is absurd. Hence each prime $p$ is sent to another prime $s(p)$. Now, we claim that
    $$
    g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}) = s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k} tag{1}
    $$



    and since these are in fact automorphisms, this characterizes them. In effect, we can do induction on the maximum exponent of a prime decomposition of $n in mathbb{N}$. If $n = 1$ or $n$ prime, we have already proved this. Now take $n = p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k} in mathbb{N}$ and without loss of generality, let's assume $n_1 leq dots leq n_k$. Since $ p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k-1} < p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}$, then



    $$
    s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{(n_k-1)} = g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{(n_k-1)}) < g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k})
    $$



    and so $g(p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}) = s(p_1)^{m_1} cdots s(p_k)^{m_k}$ with $m_i geq n_i$. We ought to see that $m_i = n_i$ for all $i$. If for some $j$ it would be $m_j > n_j$, then we would have that



    $$
    s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{(n_k-1)} < s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k} < s(p_1)^{m_k} cdots s(p_k)^{m_k}
    $$



    and therefore applying $g^{-1}$ we get that



    $$
    p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{(n_k-1)} < g^{-1}(s(p_1)^{n_1} cdots s(p_k)^{n_k}) < p_1^{n_1} cdots p_k^{n_k}.
    $$



    which is absurd. This concludes the proof of $(1)$ and so autmorphisms correspond to bijections of $mathbb{P}$, and via their enumeration, the latter correspond to bijections of $mathbb{N}$. In other words, if $p_n$ in the $n$-th prime and we define



    $$
    begin{align}
    Gamma : operatorname{Aut}(&mathbb{N}, |) longrightarrow mathbb{S}(mathbb{P}) longrightarrow mathbb{S}(mathbb{N})\
    & g longmapsto (p mapsto g(p)) mapsto s_g
    end{align}
    $$



    with $s_g(m) = n$ iff $g(p_m) = p_n$, then $Gamma$ is bijective.



    Edit: according to comments the question concerns automorphisms of the order induced by division, hence what follows does not apply.



    To ease on the notation, I will use $U = (mathbb{N},leq)$ for the naturals with the usual order and $D = (mathbb{N},leq')$ for the naturals with the order given by division. Note that any function $g : U to D$ which verifies $x leq y Rightarrow g(x) leq' g(y)$ is monotone as a function $tilde{g}: U to U$, because $x | y$ implies $x leq y$. Thus if $g$ were an isomorphism, we would have a bijective monotone function $tilde{g} : U to U$ with $g(n) = tilde{g}(n)$. As we have ruled out in the comments, as a function we have $g neq id$ and so by well ordering of the naturals (with respect to the order on $U$),



    $$
    l := min {n : g(n) neq n}
    $$



    is well defined, and so $g(l) neq l$. By surjectivity, $l = g(k)$ and thus $k neq l$. By minimality, since $k neq g(k)$ necessarily $l < k$ and so $g(l) < g(k) = l$. By minimality once again, this says that $g(g(l)) = g(l) = g(g(k))$ and so by injectivity, we get that $g(l) = g(k) = l$, and that is absurd. Since the contradiction came from assuming that such $g$ existed, no isomorphism between $U$ and $D$ exists.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited 15 hours ago

























    answered 17 hours ago









    Guido A.Guido A.

    7,8231730




    7,8231730












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for answer and comments...
      $endgroup$
      – PozcuKushimotoStreet
      9 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      @PozcuKushimotoStreet glad I could help!
      $endgroup$
      – Guido A.
      6 hours ago


















    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for answer and comments...
      $endgroup$
      – PozcuKushimotoStreet
      9 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      @PozcuKushimotoStreet glad I could help!
      $endgroup$
      – Guido A.
      6 hours ago
















    $begingroup$
    Thanks for answer and comments...
    $endgroup$
    – PozcuKushimotoStreet
    9 hours ago




    $begingroup$
    Thanks for answer and comments...
    $endgroup$
    – PozcuKushimotoStreet
    9 hours ago












    $begingroup$
    @PozcuKushimotoStreet glad I could help!
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    6 hours ago




    $begingroup$
    @PozcuKushimotoStreet glad I could help!
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    6 hours ago











    2












    $begingroup$

    The key insight is that for the order you defined, a prime number $p$ has the property that from $1 le x le p$ follows $x=1$ or $x=p$. In addition, no other number (besides 1, which is an obvious fixpoint of any isomorphism) fullfills that condition. So by necessitiy, any order isomorphism must bijectively map primes to primes.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      The key insight is that for the order you defined, a prime number $p$ has the property that from $1 le x le p$ follows $x=1$ or $x=p$. In addition, no other number (besides 1, which is an obvious fixpoint of any isomorphism) fullfills that condition. So by necessitiy, any order isomorphism must bijectively map primes to primes.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        The key insight is that for the order you defined, a prime number $p$ has the property that from $1 le x le p$ follows $x=1$ or $x=p$. In addition, no other number (besides 1, which is an obvious fixpoint of any isomorphism) fullfills that condition. So by necessitiy, any order isomorphism must bijectively map primes to primes.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        The key insight is that for the order you defined, a prime number $p$ has the property that from $1 le x le p$ follows $x=1$ or $x=p$. In addition, no other number (besides 1, which is an obvious fixpoint of any isomorphism) fullfills that condition. So by necessitiy, any order isomorphism must bijectively map primes to primes.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 17 hours ago









        IngixIngix

        4,547159




        4,547159






























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