Convergence to a fixed point [duplicate]Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_{n+1}$.Confused about...

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Convergence to a fixed point [duplicate]


Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_{n+1}$.Confused about fixed point method conditionShrinking Map and Fixed Point via Iteration MethodWhich negation of the definition of a null sequence is correct?Relation between two different definitions of quadratic convergenceFixed point, bounded derivativeProving Cauchy when given a sequenceBanach fixed point questionHelp me understand this proof of Implicit Function Theorem on Banach spacesConvergence of functions (in sense of distributions)Banach fixed-point theoremIf the odd function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ letting $x>0$ is continuous at $x$, prove the function is continuous at $-x$.













4












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This question already has an answer here:




  • Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_{n+1}$.

    3 answers




Let $f : [a,b] rightarrow [a,b]$ be a continuous function s.t. $f'(x)$ is defined on $(a,b)$ and $leftlvert f'(x)rightrvert leqq t$ where $0<t<1$. Prove that for any point $x_0$ in $[a,b]$ the sequence defined by $$ x_n=f(x_{n-1}), n>0$$
converges to one unique fixed point.



Attempt:
Frankly, I have struggled to make a real attempt due to the fact that I can't find notes relating to this.



Obviously, I am assuming that there exists $x$ in$ [a,b]$ s.t. $f(x)=x$ but how do I relate the sequence to this $x$?



I'm strictly not allowed to assume Banach's theorem in this question, nor the Cauchy sequence because they come up on the second part of the course. I rather have to PROVE this.










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marked as duplicate by rtybase, Eevee Trainer, mrtaurho, Vinyl_cape_jawa, José Carlos Santos 2 hours ago


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















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    17 hours ago










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This question already has an answer here:




  • Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_{n+1}$.

    3 answers




Let $f : [a,b] rightarrow [a,b]$ be a continuous function s.t. $f'(x)$ is defined on $(a,b)$ and $leftlvert f'(x)rightrvert leqq t$ where $0<t<1$. Prove that for any point $x_0$ in $[a,b]$ the sequence defined by $$ x_n=f(x_{n-1}), n>0$$
converges to one unique fixed point.



Attempt:
Frankly, I have struggled to make a real attempt due to the fact that I can't find notes relating to this.



Obviously, I am assuming that there exists $x$ in$ [a,b]$ s.t. $f(x)=x$ but how do I relate the sequence to this $x$?



I'm strictly not allowed to assume Banach's theorem in this question, nor the Cauchy sequence because they come up on the second part of the course. I rather have to PROVE this.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Grace is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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marked as duplicate by rtybase, Eevee Trainer, mrtaurho, Vinyl_cape_jawa, José Carlos Santos 2 hours ago


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    Another related question.
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    17 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
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4












4








4





$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_{n+1}$.

    3 answers




Let $f : [a,b] rightarrow [a,b]$ be a continuous function s.t. $f'(x)$ is defined on $(a,b)$ and $leftlvert f'(x)rightrvert leqq t$ where $0<t<1$. Prove that for any point $x_0$ in $[a,b]$ the sequence defined by $$ x_n=f(x_{n-1}), n>0$$
converges to one unique fixed point.



Attempt:
Frankly, I have struggled to make a real attempt due to the fact that I can't find notes relating to this.



Obviously, I am assuming that there exists $x$ in$ [a,b]$ s.t. $f(x)=x$ but how do I relate the sequence to this $x$?



I'm strictly not allowed to assume Banach's theorem in this question, nor the Cauchy sequence because they come up on the second part of the course. I rather have to PROVE this.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Grace is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_{n+1}$.

    3 answers




Let $f : [a,b] rightarrow [a,b]$ be a continuous function s.t. $f'(x)$ is defined on $(a,b)$ and $leftlvert f'(x)rightrvert leqq t$ where $0<t<1$. Prove that for any point $x_0$ in $[a,b]$ the sequence defined by $$ x_n=f(x_{n-1}), n>0$$
converges to one unique fixed point.



Attempt:
Frankly, I have struggled to make a real attempt due to the fact that I can't find notes relating to this.



Obviously, I am assuming that there exists $x$ in$ [a,b]$ s.t. $f(x)=x$ but how do I relate the sequence to this $x$?



I'm strictly not allowed to assume Banach's theorem in this question, nor the Cauchy sequence because they come up on the second part of the course. I rather have to PROVE this.





This question already has an answer here:




  • Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_{n+1}$.

    3 answers








analysis convergence numerical-methods fixed-point-theorems fixedpoints






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edited 17 hours ago







Grace













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asked 17 hours ago









Grace Grace

255




255




New contributor




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marked as duplicate by rtybase, Eevee Trainer, mrtaurho, Vinyl_cape_jawa, José Carlos Santos 2 hours ago


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by rtybase, Eevee Trainer, mrtaurho, Vinyl_cape_jawa, José Carlos Santos 2 hours ago


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • $begingroup$
    Another related question.
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    17 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
    $endgroup$
    – dantopa
    15 hours ago




















  • $begingroup$
    Another related question.
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    17 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
    $endgroup$
    – dantopa
    15 hours ago


















$begingroup$
Another related question.
$endgroup$
– rtybase
17 hours ago




$begingroup$
Another related question.
$endgroup$
– rtybase
17 hours ago












$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
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3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_{m+1}-x_m|+|x_{m+2}-x_{m+1}|$$ $$+cdots+|x_{n}-x_{n-1}|leq |x_{m+1}-x_m| (1+t+t^{2}+cdots+t^{n+m-1})$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_{m+1}-x_m| leq t^{m-1} |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^{n}$ conclude that ${x_n}$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you! This is very helpful :-)
    $endgroup$
    – Grace
    7 hours ago



















3












$begingroup$

The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence ${x_n }$ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    2












    $begingroup$

    This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.



    Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
    $$x_n = F(x_{n-1}) $$
    will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.



    Since in this case you know that
    $$|f'(x)| leq t $$
    This implies that



    $$Big|frac{f(x) - f(y)}{x - y}Big| leq t$$



    for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).



    This implies that



    $$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$



    which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence



    $$ x_n = f(x_{n-1})$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Shore
      17 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      @RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – Sean Lee
      17 hours ago


















    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    3












    $begingroup$

    To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_{m+1}-x_m|+|x_{m+2}-x_{m+1}|$$ $$+cdots+|x_{n}-x_{n-1}|leq |x_{m+1}-x_m| (1+t+t^{2}+cdots+t^{n+m-1})$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_{m+1}-x_m| leq t^{m-1} |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^{n}$ conclude that ${x_n}$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thank you! This is very helpful :-)
      $endgroup$
      – Grace
      7 hours ago
















    3












    $begingroup$

    To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_{m+1}-x_m|+|x_{m+2}-x_{m+1}|$$ $$+cdots+|x_{n}-x_{n-1}|leq |x_{m+1}-x_m| (1+t+t^{2}+cdots+t^{n+m-1})$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_{m+1}-x_m| leq t^{m-1} |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^{n}$ conclude that ${x_n}$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thank you! This is very helpful :-)
      $endgroup$
      – Grace
      7 hours ago














    3












    3








    3





    $begingroup$

    To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_{m+1}-x_m|+|x_{m+2}-x_{m+1}|$$ $$+cdots+|x_{n}-x_{n-1}|leq |x_{m+1}-x_m| (1+t+t^{2}+cdots+t^{n+m-1})$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_{m+1}-x_m| leq t^{m-1} |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^{n}$ conclude that ${x_n}$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_{m+1}-x_m|+|x_{m+2}-x_{m+1}|$$ $$+cdots+|x_{n}-x_{n-1}|leq |x_{m+1}-x_m| (1+t+t^{2}+cdots+t^{n+m-1})$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_{m+1}-x_m| leq t^{m-1} |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^{n}$ conclude that ${x_n}$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered 16 hours ago









    Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

    65.4k42766




    65.4k42766












    • $begingroup$
      Thank you! This is very helpful :-)
      $endgroup$
      – Grace
      7 hours ago


















    • $begingroup$
      Thank you! This is very helpful :-)
      $endgroup$
      – Grace
      7 hours ago
















    $begingroup$
    Thank you! This is very helpful :-)
    $endgroup$
    – Grace
    7 hours ago




    $begingroup$
    Thank you! This is very helpful :-)
    $endgroup$
    – Grace
    7 hours ago











    3












    $begingroup$

    The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence ${x_n }$ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      3












      $begingroup$

      The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence ${x_n }$ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        3












        3








        3





        $begingroup$

        The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence ${x_n }$ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence ${x_n }$ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited 17 hours ago

























        answered 17 hours ago









        Robert ShoreRobert Shore

        2,079116




        2,079116























            2












            $begingroup$

            This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.



            Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
            $$x_n = F(x_{n-1}) $$
            will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.



            Since in this case you know that
            $$|f'(x)| leq t $$
            This implies that



            $$Big|frac{f(x) - f(y)}{x - y}Big| leq t$$



            for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).



            This implies that



            $$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$



            which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence



            $$ x_n = f(x_{n-1})$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Shore
              17 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
              $endgroup$
              – Sean Lee
              17 hours ago
















            2












            $begingroup$

            This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.



            Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
            $$x_n = F(x_{n-1}) $$
            will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.



            Since in this case you know that
            $$|f'(x)| leq t $$
            This implies that



            $$Big|frac{f(x) - f(y)}{x - y}Big| leq t$$



            for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).



            This implies that



            $$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$



            which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence



            $$ x_n = f(x_{n-1})$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Shore
              17 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
              $endgroup$
              – Sean Lee
              17 hours ago














            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.



            Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
            $$x_n = F(x_{n-1}) $$
            will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.



            Since in this case you know that
            $$|f'(x)| leq t $$
            This implies that



            $$Big|frac{f(x) - f(y)}{x - y}Big| leq t$$



            for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).



            This implies that



            $$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$



            which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence



            $$ x_n = f(x_{n-1})$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.



            Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
            $$x_n = F(x_{n-1}) $$
            will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.



            Since in this case you know that
            $$|f'(x)| leq t $$
            This implies that



            $$Big|frac{f(x) - f(y)}{x - y}Big| leq t$$



            for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).



            This implies that



            $$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$



            which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence



            $$ x_n = f(x_{n-1})$$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 17 hours ago









            Sean LeeSean Lee

            493211




            493211












            • $begingroup$
              Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Shore
              17 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
              $endgroup$
              – Sean Lee
              17 hours ago


















            • $begingroup$
              Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Shore
              17 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
              $endgroup$
              – Sean Lee
              17 hours ago
















            $begingroup$
            Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Shore
            17 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Shore
            17 hours ago












            $begingroup$
            @RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Sean Lee
            17 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            @RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Sean Lee
            17 hours ago



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