Contradiction with Banach Fixed Point TheoremUnderstanding the Banach fixed point theoremgeneralization of...

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Contradiction with Banach Fixed Point Theorem


Understanding the Banach fixed point theoremgeneralization of Banach fixed-point theorem on short maps?Banach Fixed Point Theorem. Measurable version.Leray-Schauder fixed point theoremNewton's Method and Banach Fixed Point TheoremSolution of an equation involving Banach fixed point.Banach fixed point theoremBanach Fixed Pointfixed point of a contraction on a closed, convex spaceBanach fixed-point theorem













6












$begingroup$


I am trying to find the fixed point of the function $g(x) = e^{-x}$. Wolfram Alpha tells me that this fixed point is approximately $x approx 0,567$. However, if I apply the Banach fixed point theorem, I can prove that $g(x)$ has a fixed point in the interval $[2,infty)$. I reasoned as follows:



Banach fixed point theorem:
Let $X$ be a Banach space, $D subseteq X$ a closed interval and $T:D rightarrow D$ a contraction, which means that $T$ is Lipschitz continuous with Lipschitz constant $L < 1$:



begin{equation}
Vert T(u) - T(v) Vert_X leq L Vert u-v Vert_X text{ } forall u,v in D.
end{equation}



Now $X = (mathbb{R}, Vert cdot Vert_1)$ is a Banach space and $D = [2,infty)$ is a closed interval in $X$. Now, I show that $g(x)$ is a contraction: without loss of generality, assume $x < y$. Then



begin{equation}
Vert g_1(x) - g_1(y) Vert_1 = |e^{-x} - e^{-y}| = e^{-x} - e^{-y} = e^{-x}(1-e^{x-y}).
end{equation}



Since $e^a geq 1+a text{ } forall a in mathbb{R}$, I obtain



begin{equation}
begin{split}
Vert g_1(x) - g_1(y) Vert leq e^{-x}(1-(1+x-y)) = e^{-x}(y-x) \
leq e^{-2}(y-x) = e^{-2}|x-y| = e^{-2} Vert x-y Vert_1 = L Vert x-y Vert_1,
end{split}
end{equation}



where $L = e^{-2}$ < 1.



So the conditions of the Banach fixed point theorem are satisfied and $g(x)$ has a fixed point in the interval $[2, infty)$. However... This is not true!
Can anyone tell me what is going wrong here?
Thank you very much in advance!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    6












    $begingroup$


    I am trying to find the fixed point of the function $g(x) = e^{-x}$. Wolfram Alpha tells me that this fixed point is approximately $x approx 0,567$. However, if I apply the Banach fixed point theorem, I can prove that $g(x)$ has a fixed point in the interval $[2,infty)$. I reasoned as follows:



    Banach fixed point theorem:
    Let $X$ be a Banach space, $D subseteq X$ a closed interval and $T:D rightarrow D$ a contraction, which means that $T$ is Lipschitz continuous with Lipschitz constant $L < 1$:



    begin{equation}
    Vert T(u) - T(v) Vert_X leq L Vert u-v Vert_X text{ } forall u,v in D.
    end{equation}



    Now $X = (mathbb{R}, Vert cdot Vert_1)$ is a Banach space and $D = [2,infty)$ is a closed interval in $X$. Now, I show that $g(x)$ is a contraction: without loss of generality, assume $x < y$. Then



    begin{equation}
    Vert g_1(x) - g_1(y) Vert_1 = |e^{-x} - e^{-y}| = e^{-x} - e^{-y} = e^{-x}(1-e^{x-y}).
    end{equation}



    Since $e^a geq 1+a text{ } forall a in mathbb{R}$, I obtain



    begin{equation}
    begin{split}
    Vert g_1(x) - g_1(y) Vert leq e^{-x}(1-(1+x-y)) = e^{-x}(y-x) \
    leq e^{-2}(y-x) = e^{-2}|x-y| = e^{-2} Vert x-y Vert_1 = L Vert x-y Vert_1,
    end{split}
    end{equation}



    where $L = e^{-2}$ < 1.



    So the conditions of the Banach fixed point theorem are satisfied and $g(x)$ has a fixed point in the interval $[2, infty)$. However... This is not true!
    Can anyone tell me what is going wrong here?
    Thank you very much in advance!










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      6












      6








      6





      $begingroup$


      I am trying to find the fixed point of the function $g(x) = e^{-x}$. Wolfram Alpha tells me that this fixed point is approximately $x approx 0,567$. However, if I apply the Banach fixed point theorem, I can prove that $g(x)$ has a fixed point in the interval $[2,infty)$. I reasoned as follows:



      Banach fixed point theorem:
      Let $X$ be a Banach space, $D subseteq X$ a closed interval and $T:D rightarrow D$ a contraction, which means that $T$ is Lipschitz continuous with Lipschitz constant $L < 1$:



      begin{equation}
      Vert T(u) - T(v) Vert_X leq L Vert u-v Vert_X text{ } forall u,v in D.
      end{equation}



      Now $X = (mathbb{R}, Vert cdot Vert_1)$ is a Banach space and $D = [2,infty)$ is a closed interval in $X$. Now, I show that $g(x)$ is a contraction: without loss of generality, assume $x < y$. Then



      begin{equation}
      Vert g_1(x) - g_1(y) Vert_1 = |e^{-x} - e^{-y}| = e^{-x} - e^{-y} = e^{-x}(1-e^{x-y}).
      end{equation}



      Since $e^a geq 1+a text{ } forall a in mathbb{R}$, I obtain



      begin{equation}
      begin{split}
      Vert g_1(x) - g_1(y) Vert leq e^{-x}(1-(1+x-y)) = e^{-x}(y-x) \
      leq e^{-2}(y-x) = e^{-2}|x-y| = e^{-2} Vert x-y Vert_1 = L Vert x-y Vert_1,
      end{split}
      end{equation}



      where $L = e^{-2}$ < 1.



      So the conditions of the Banach fixed point theorem are satisfied and $g(x)$ has a fixed point in the interval $[2, infty)$. However... This is not true!
      Can anyone tell me what is going wrong here?
      Thank you very much in advance!










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am trying to find the fixed point of the function $g(x) = e^{-x}$. Wolfram Alpha tells me that this fixed point is approximately $x approx 0,567$. However, if I apply the Banach fixed point theorem, I can prove that $g(x)$ has a fixed point in the interval $[2,infty)$. I reasoned as follows:



      Banach fixed point theorem:
      Let $X$ be a Banach space, $D subseteq X$ a closed interval and $T:D rightarrow D$ a contraction, which means that $T$ is Lipschitz continuous with Lipschitz constant $L < 1$:



      begin{equation}
      Vert T(u) - T(v) Vert_X leq L Vert u-v Vert_X text{ } forall u,v in D.
      end{equation}



      Now $X = (mathbb{R}, Vert cdot Vert_1)$ is a Banach space and $D = [2,infty)$ is a closed interval in $X$. Now, I show that $g(x)$ is a contraction: without loss of generality, assume $x < y$. Then



      begin{equation}
      Vert g_1(x) - g_1(y) Vert_1 = |e^{-x} - e^{-y}| = e^{-x} - e^{-y} = e^{-x}(1-e^{x-y}).
      end{equation}



      Since $e^a geq 1+a text{ } forall a in mathbb{R}$, I obtain



      begin{equation}
      begin{split}
      Vert g_1(x) - g_1(y) Vert leq e^{-x}(1-(1+x-y)) = e^{-x}(y-x) \
      leq e^{-2}(y-x) = e^{-2}|x-y| = e^{-2} Vert x-y Vert_1 = L Vert x-y Vert_1,
      end{split}
      end{equation}



      where $L = e^{-2}$ < 1.



      So the conditions of the Banach fixed point theorem are satisfied and $g(x)$ has a fixed point in the interval $[2, infty)$. However... This is not true!
      Can anyone tell me what is going wrong here?
      Thank you very much in advance!







      fixed-point-theorems






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked 17 hours ago









      LunaLuna

      486




      486






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          37












          $begingroup$

          $e^{-x}$ does not map $[2,infty)$ into itself.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The phrase "map into" is often used to denote injections (and "map onto" used to denote surjections), and this is injective.
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            9 hours ago






          • 4




            $begingroup$
            @Acccumulation - the phrase "map into" does not, and should not, mean "injection". "into" in standard English usage indicates inclusion, not uniqueness. Attaching such a specialized meaning to it in Mathematics simply invites confusion to readers. And while I obviously cannot say that no author has used such a thing, I personally am not familiar with any text where "map into" is given such a meaning.
            $endgroup$
            – Paul Sinclair
            7 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @PaulSinclair "An "into" or "one-to-one" function, also called an "injection" (which, as you can guess, is French for "throwing into") moves the domain A INTO B" mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/52454.html
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            7 hours ago






          • 4




            $begingroup$
            @Accumulation - So there is one person who is willing to make such an association in a forum post. However, I still say this is far from conventional. The texts I am familiar with do not use "into" to mean "injection", but simply when the function is not known to be surjective.
            $endgroup$
            – Paul Sinclair
            7 hours ago






          • 3




            $begingroup$
            Regardless, the main point of this answer is that the range of $e^{-x}$ is not in $[2,infty)$. Whether "into" means "one-to-one" or not, $e^{-x}$ does not map $[2,infty)$ into itself because the range is disjoint from the domain.
            $endgroup$
            – Teepeemm
            7 hours ago



















          1












          $begingroup$

          $e^{-2}$ is not in the interval $[2,infty)$, so the image of the interval is not contained within the interval; i.e. $g$ does not map the interval to itself. In fact, the interval and its image are disjoint, so there can't possibly be a fixed point. One way of thinking of the Banach fixed-point theorem is that if you have an interval that is mapped to itself, then you can find a a sub-interval that is mapped to that sub-interval, and a sub-sub-interval of that sub-interval that is mapped to that sub-sub-interval, and so on, and the limit of that process is a single point that's mapped to itself. Once you get an interval that isn't mapped to itself, though, that interval doesn't necessarily have a fixed point, even though the space as a whole does. If you don't check that an interval is mapped to itself, you would find that the BFPT requires every interval to contain a fixed point, which is clearly absurd.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            @FedericoPoloni You're right; the article on the BFPT says that L has to be in the interval [0,1), which I missed.
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            4 hours ago











          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          37












          $begingroup$

          $e^{-x}$ does not map $[2,infty)$ into itself.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The phrase "map into" is often used to denote injections (and "map onto" used to denote surjections), and this is injective.
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            9 hours ago






          • 4




            $begingroup$
            @Acccumulation - the phrase "map into" does not, and should not, mean "injection". "into" in standard English usage indicates inclusion, not uniqueness. Attaching such a specialized meaning to it in Mathematics simply invites confusion to readers. And while I obviously cannot say that no author has used such a thing, I personally am not familiar with any text where "map into" is given such a meaning.
            $endgroup$
            – Paul Sinclair
            7 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @PaulSinclair "An "into" or "one-to-one" function, also called an "injection" (which, as you can guess, is French for "throwing into") moves the domain A INTO B" mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/52454.html
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            7 hours ago






          • 4




            $begingroup$
            @Accumulation - So there is one person who is willing to make such an association in a forum post. However, I still say this is far from conventional. The texts I am familiar with do not use "into" to mean "injection", but simply when the function is not known to be surjective.
            $endgroup$
            – Paul Sinclair
            7 hours ago






          • 3




            $begingroup$
            Regardless, the main point of this answer is that the range of $e^{-x}$ is not in $[2,infty)$. Whether "into" means "one-to-one" or not, $e^{-x}$ does not map $[2,infty)$ into itself because the range is disjoint from the domain.
            $endgroup$
            – Teepeemm
            7 hours ago
















          37












          $begingroup$

          $e^{-x}$ does not map $[2,infty)$ into itself.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The phrase "map into" is often used to denote injections (and "map onto" used to denote surjections), and this is injective.
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            9 hours ago






          • 4




            $begingroup$
            @Acccumulation - the phrase "map into" does not, and should not, mean "injection". "into" in standard English usage indicates inclusion, not uniqueness. Attaching such a specialized meaning to it in Mathematics simply invites confusion to readers. And while I obviously cannot say that no author has used such a thing, I personally am not familiar with any text where "map into" is given such a meaning.
            $endgroup$
            – Paul Sinclair
            7 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @PaulSinclair "An "into" or "one-to-one" function, also called an "injection" (which, as you can guess, is French for "throwing into") moves the domain A INTO B" mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/52454.html
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            7 hours ago






          • 4




            $begingroup$
            @Accumulation - So there is one person who is willing to make such an association in a forum post. However, I still say this is far from conventional. The texts I am familiar with do not use "into" to mean "injection", but simply when the function is not known to be surjective.
            $endgroup$
            – Paul Sinclair
            7 hours ago






          • 3




            $begingroup$
            Regardless, the main point of this answer is that the range of $e^{-x}$ is not in $[2,infty)$. Whether "into" means "one-to-one" or not, $e^{-x}$ does not map $[2,infty)$ into itself because the range is disjoint from the domain.
            $endgroup$
            – Teepeemm
            7 hours ago














          37












          37








          37





          $begingroup$

          $e^{-x}$ does not map $[2,infty)$ into itself.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          $e^{-x}$ does not map $[2,infty)$ into itself.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 17 hours ago









          Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

          64.5k42665




          64.5k42665








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The phrase "map into" is often used to denote injections (and "map onto" used to denote surjections), and this is injective.
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            9 hours ago






          • 4




            $begingroup$
            @Acccumulation - the phrase "map into" does not, and should not, mean "injection". "into" in standard English usage indicates inclusion, not uniqueness. Attaching such a specialized meaning to it in Mathematics simply invites confusion to readers. And while I obviously cannot say that no author has used such a thing, I personally am not familiar with any text where "map into" is given such a meaning.
            $endgroup$
            – Paul Sinclair
            7 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @PaulSinclair "An "into" or "one-to-one" function, also called an "injection" (which, as you can guess, is French for "throwing into") moves the domain A INTO B" mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/52454.html
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            7 hours ago






          • 4




            $begingroup$
            @Accumulation - So there is one person who is willing to make such an association in a forum post. However, I still say this is far from conventional. The texts I am familiar with do not use "into" to mean "injection", but simply when the function is not known to be surjective.
            $endgroup$
            – Paul Sinclair
            7 hours ago






          • 3




            $begingroup$
            Regardless, the main point of this answer is that the range of $e^{-x}$ is not in $[2,infty)$. Whether "into" means "one-to-one" or not, $e^{-x}$ does not map $[2,infty)$ into itself because the range is disjoint from the domain.
            $endgroup$
            – Teepeemm
            7 hours ago














          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The phrase "map into" is often used to denote injections (and "map onto" used to denote surjections), and this is injective.
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            9 hours ago






          • 4




            $begingroup$
            @Acccumulation - the phrase "map into" does not, and should not, mean "injection". "into" in standard English usage indicates inclusion, not uniqueness. Attaching such a specialized meaning to it in Mathematics simply invites confusion to readers. And while I obviously cannot say that no author has used such a thing, I personally am not familiar with any text where "map into" is given such a meaning.
            $endgroup$
            – Paul Sinclair
            7 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            @PaulSinclair "An "into" or "one-to-one" function, also called an "injection" (which, as you can guess, is French for "throwing into") moves the domain A INTO B" mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/52454.html
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            7 hours ago






          • 4




            $begingroup$
            @Accumulation - So there is one person who is willing to make such an association in a forum post. However, I still say this is far from conventional. The texts I am familiar with do not use "into" to mean "injection", but simply when the function is not known to be surjective.
            $endgroup$
            – Paul Sinclair
            7 hours ago






          • 3




            $begingroup$
            Regardless, the main point of this answer is that the range of $e^{-x}$ is not in $[2,infty)$. Whether "into" means "one-to-one" or not, $e^{-x}$ does not map $[2,infty)$ into itself because the range is disjoint from the domain.
            $endgroup$
            – Teepeemm
            7 hours ago








          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          The phrase "map into" is often used to denote injections (and "map onto" used to denote surjections), and this is injective.
          $endgroup$
          – Acccumulation
          9 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          The phrase "map into" is often used to denote injections (and "map onto" used to denote surjections), and this is injective.
          $endgroup$
          – Acccumulation
          9 hours ago




          4




          4




          $begingroup$
          @Acccumulation - the phrase "map into" does not, and should not, mean "injection". "into" in standard English usage indicates inclusion, not uniqueness. Attaching such a specialized meaning to it in Mathematics simply invites confusion to readers. And while I obviously cannot say that no author has used such a thing, I personally am not familiar with any text where "map into" is given such a meaning.
          $endgroup$
          – Paul Sinclair
          7 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          @Acccumulation - the phrase "map into" does not, and should not, mean "injection". "into" in standard English usage indicates inclusion, not uniqueness. Attaching such a specialized meaning to it in Mathematics simply invites confusion to readers. And while I obviously cannot say that no author has used such a thing, I personally am not familiar with any text where "map into" is given such a meaning.
          $endgroup$
          – Paul Sinclair
          7 hours ago












          $begingroup$
          @PaulSinclair "An "into" or "one-to-one" function, also called an "injection" (which, as you can guess, is French for "throwing into") moves the domain A INTO B" mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/52454.html
          $endgroup$
          – Acccumulation
          7 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          @PaulSinclair "An "into" or "one-to-one" function, also called an "injection" (which, as you can guess, is French for "throwing into") moves the domain A INTO B" mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/52454.html
          $endgroup$
          – Acccumulation
          7 hours ago




          4




          4




          $begingroup$
          @Accumulation - So there is one person who is willing to make such an association in a forum post. However, I still say this is far from conventional. The texts I am familiar with do not use "into" to mean "injection", but simply when the function is not known to be surjective.
          $endgroup$
          – Paul Sinclair
          7 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          @Accumulation - So there is one person who is willing to make such an association in a forum post. However, I still say this is far from conventional. The texts I am familiar with do not use "into" to mean "injection", but simply when the function is not known to be surjective.
          $endgroup$
          – Paul Sinclair
          7 hours ago




          3




          3




          $begingroup$
          Regardless, the main point of this answer is that the range of $e^{-x}$ is not in $[2,infty)$. Whether "into" means "one-to-one" or not, $e^{-x}$ does not map $[2,infty)$ into itself because the range is disjoint from the domain.
          $endgroup$
          – Teepeemm
          7 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          Regardless, the main point of this answer is that the range of $e^{-x}$ is not in $[2,infty)$. Whether "into" means "one-to-one" or not, $e^{-x}$ does not map $[2,infty)$ into itself because the range is disjoint from the domain.
          $endgroup$
          – Teepeemm
          7 hours ago











          1












          $begingroup$

          $e^{-2}$ is not in the interval $[2,infty)$, so the image of the interval is not contained within the interval; i.e. $g$ does not map the interval to itself. In fact, the interval and its image are disjoint, so there can't possibly be a fixed point. One way of thinking of the Banach fixed-point theorem is that if you have an interval that is mapped to itself, then you can find a a sub-interval that is mapped to that sub-interval, and a sub-sub-interval of that sub-interval that is mapped to that sub-sub-interval, and so on, and the limit of that process is a single point that's mapped to itself. Once you get an interval that isn't mapped to itself, though, that interval doesn't necessarily have a fixed point, even though the space as a whole does. If you don't check that an interval is mapped to itself, you would find that the BFPT requires every interval to contain a fixed point, which is clearly absurd.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            @FedericoPoloni You're right; the article on the BFPT says that L has to be in the interval [0,1), which I missed.
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            4 hours ago
















          1












          $begingroup$

          $e^{-2}$ is not in the interval $[2,infty)$, so the image of the interval is not contained within the interval; i.e. $g$ does not map the interval to itself. In fact, the interval and its image are disjoint, so there can't possibly be a fixed point. One way of thinking of the Banach fixed-point theorem is that if you have an interval that is mapped to itself, then you can find a a sub-interval that is mapped to that sub-interval, and a sub-sub-interval of that sub-interval that is mapped to that sub-sub-interval, and so on, and the limit of that process is a single point that's mapped to itself. Once you get an interval that isn't mapped to itself, though, that interval doesn't necessarily have a fixed point, even though the space as a whole does. If you don't check that an interval is mapped to itself, you would find that the BFPT requires every interval to contain a fixed point, which is clearly absurd.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            @FedericoPoloni You're right; the article on the BFPT says that L has to be in the interval [0,1), which I missed.
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            4 hours ago














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          $e^{-2}$ is not in the interval $[2,infty)$, so the image of the interval is not contained within the interval; i.e. $g$ does not map the interval to itself. In fact, the interval and its image are disjoint, so there can't possibly be a fixed point. One way of thinking of the Banach fixed-point theorem is that if you have an interval that is mapped to itself, then you can find a a sub-interval that is mapped to that sub-interval, and a sub-sub-interval of that sub-interval that is mapped to that sub-sub-interval, and so on, and the limit of that process is a single point that's mapped to itself. Once you get an interval that isn't mapped to itself, though, that interval doesn't necessarily have a fixed point, even though the space as a whole does. If you don't check that an interval is mapped to itself, you would find that the BFPT requires every interval to contain a fixed point, which is clearly absurd.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          $e^{-2}$ is not in the interval $[2,infty)$, so the image of the interval is not contained within the interval; i.e. $g$ does not map the interval to itself. In fact, the interval and its image are disjoint, so there can't possibly be a fixed point. One way of thinking of the Banach fixed-point theorem is that if you have an interval that is mapped to itself, then you can find a a sub-interval that is mapped to that sub-interval, and a sub-sub-interval of that sub-interval that is mapped to that sub-sub-interval, and so on, and the limit of that process is a single point that's mapped to itself. Once you get an interval that isn't mapped to itself, though, that interval doesn't necessarily have a fixed point, even though the space as a whole does. If you don't check that an interval is mapped to itself, you would find that the BFPT requires every interval to contain a fixed point, which is clearly absurd.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 4 hours ago

























          answered 9 hours ago









          AcccumulationAcccumulation

          7,0472619




          7,0472619












          • $begingroup$
            @FedericoPoloni You're right; the article on the BFPT says that L has to be in the interval [0,1), which I missed.
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            4 hours ago


















          • $begingroup$
            @FedericoPoloni You're right; the article on the BFPT says that L has to be in the interval [0,1), which I missed.
            $endgroup$
            – Acccumulation
            4 hours ago
















          $begingroup$
          @FedericoPoloni You're right; the article on the BFPT says that L has to be in the interval [0,1), which I missed.
          $endgroup$
          – Acccumulation
          4 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          @FedericoPoloni You're right; the article on the BFPT says that L has to be in the interval [0,1), which I missed.
          $endgroup$
          – Acccumulation
          4 hours ago


















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