Meaning of “individuandum”Meaning and etymology of ūrīnor and ūrīna: “to dive” comes from...

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Meaning of “individuandum”


Meaning and etymology of ūrīnor and ūrīna: “to dive” comes from “pee”?“Miserando atque eligendo”When did *discere* come to mean “to teach”?Translations of “ad nutum”What does “Hæc igitur illico non ingratanter Christianis patuit” mean?Proper parsing of “respondeo dicendum quod”Hominem super hominemWho asked whom about the cape of parchment? And who answered?Origin and explanation of memoriaeMeaning of “naturam unibilitatis”













2















What is the meaning and structure of individuandum?

I guess that it is an accusative gerund of unknown verb to me.


For example in this context: (Siger de Brabant, Quaestiones in metaphysicam, 1981, p.435)




quia materia non est per se sufficiens ad individuandum, dicitur quod conditiones quaedam materiae et accidentia individui, sicut esse hic et esse nunc, individuant, a quibus abstrahit ratio universalis











share|improve this question

























  • Added the context to my answer, though I'm pretty sure I mangled parts of it

    – Draconis
    5 hours ago






  • 1





    Could you confirm that the second to last word is ration. Ratio seems more likely, or, if universalis is a noun, rationem.

    – Hugh
    4 hours ago











  • dividuo is given in one dictionary among dialect/ corrupt/ rare words as a variant for divido. Perhaps de Brabant thought dividendum, and individendum sounded like commercial terms and would be distracting.

    – Hugh
    3 hours ago











  • @Hugh My guess is it's the stem from individu-us with a standard verb ending slapped onto it; either way the meaning's the same.

    – Draconis
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    @Hugh I corrected the OP's text based on the critical edition I was able to find online.

    – brianpck
    2 hours ago
















2















What is the meaning and structure of individuandum?

I guess that it is an accusative gerund of unknown verb to me.


For example in this context: (Siger de Brabant, Quaestiones in metaphysicam, 1981, p.435)




quia materia non est per se sufficiens ad individuandum, dicitur quod conditiones quaedam materiae et accidentia individui, sicut esse hic et esse nunc, individuant, a quibus abstrahit ratio universalis











share|improve this question

























  • Added the context to my answer, though I'm pretty sure I mangled parts of it

    – Draconis
    5 hours ago






  • 1





    Could you confirm that the second to last word is ration. Ratio seems more likely, or, if universalis is a noun, rationem.

    – Hugh
    4 hours ago











  • dividuo is given in one dictionary among dialect/ corrupt/ rare words as a variant for divido. Perhaps de Brabant thought dividendum, and individendum sounded like commercial terms and would be distracting.

    – Hugh
    3 hours ago











  • @Hugh My guess is it's the stem from individu-us with a standard verb ending slapped onto it; either way the meaning's the same.

    – Draconis
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    @Hugh I corrected the OP's text based on the critical edition I was able to find online.

    – brianpck
    2 hours ago














2












2








2








What is the meaning and structure of individuandum?

I guess that it is an accusative gerund of unknown verb to me.


For example in this context: (Siger de Brabant, Quaestiones in metaphysicam, 1981, p.435)




quia materia non est per se sufficiens ad individuandum, dicitur quod conditiones quaedam materiae et accidentia individui, sicut esse hic et esse nunc, individuant, a quibus abstrahit ratio universalis











share|improve this question
















What is the meaning and structure of individuandum?

I guess that it is an accusative gerund of unknown verb to me.


For example in this context: (Siger de Brabant, Quaestiones in metaphysicam, 1981, p.435)




quia materia non est per se sufficiens ad individuandum, dicitur quod conditiones quaedam materiae et accidentia individui, sicut esse hic et esse nunc, individuant, a quibus abstrahit ratio universalis








meaning medieval-latin






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 3 hours ago









brianpck

24.8k247123




24.8k247123










asked 7 hours ago









Ali NikzadAli Nikzad

313




313













  • Added the context to my answer, though I'm pretty sure I mangled parts of it

    – Draconis
    5 hours ago






  • 1





    Could you confirm that the second to last word is ration. Ratio seems more likely, or, if universalis is a noun, rationem.

    – Hugh
    4 hours ago











  • dividuo is given in one dictionary among dialect/ corrupt/ rare words as a variant for divido. Perhaps de Brabant thought dividendum, and individendum sounded like commercial terms and would be distracting.

    – Hugh
    3 hours ago











  • @Hugh My guess is it's the stem from individu-us with a standard verb ending slapped onto it; either way the meaning's the same.

    – Draconis
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    @Hugh I corrected the OP's text based on the critical edition I was able to find online.

    – brianpck
    2 hours ago



















  • Added the context to my answer, though I'm pretty sure I mangled parts of it

    – Draconis
    5 hours ago






  • 1





    Could you confirm that the second to last word is ration. Ratio seems more likely, or, if universalis is a noun, rationem.

    – Hugh
    4 hours ago











  • dividuo is given in one dictionary among dialect/ corrupt/ rare words as a variant for divido. Perhaps de Brabant thought dividendum, and individendum sounded like commercial terms and would be distracting.

    – Hugh
    3 hours ago











  • @Hugh My guess is it's the stem from individu-us with a standard verb ending slapped onto it; either way the meaning's the same.

    – Draconis
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    @Hugh I corrected the OP's text based on the critical edition I was able to find online.

    – brianpck
    2 hours ago

















Added the context to my answer, though I'm pretty sure I mangled parts of it

– Draconis
5 hours ago





Added the context to my answer, though I'm pretty sure I mangled parts of it

– Draconis
5 hours ago




1




1





Could you confirm that the second to last word is ration. Ratio seems more likely, or, if universalis is a noun, rationem.

– Hugh
4 hours ago





Could you confirm that the second to last word is ration. Ratio seems more likely, or, if universalis is a noun, rationem.

– Hugh
4 hours ago













dividuo is given in one dictionary among dialect/ corrupt/ rare words as a variant for divido. Perhaps de Brabant thought dividendum, and individendum sounded like commercial terms and would be distracting.

– Hugh
3 hours ago





dividuo is given in one dictionary among dialect/ corrupt/ rare words as a variant for divido. Perhaps de Brabant thought dividendum, and individendum sounded like commercial terms and would be distracting.

– Hugh
3 hours ago













@Hugh My guess is it's the stem from individu-us with a standard verb ending slapped onto it; either way the meaning's the same.

– Draconis
3 hours ago





@Hugh My guess is it's the stem from individu-us with a standard verb ending slapped onto it; either way the meaning's the same.

– Draconis
3 hours ago




1




1





@Hugh I corrected the OP's text based on the critical edition I was able to find online.

– brianpck
2 hours ago





@Hugh I corrected the OP's text based on the critical edition I was able to find online.

– brianpck
2 hours ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1














This seems to me to be part of the debate about Universals, and especially about Abstract nouns. An Essence which is universal, unchanging,and indivisible, is distinct from an
Accidental like colour, position, size which is variable, inconstant and can be divided up.




quia materia non est per se sufficiens ad individuandum,




Because matter is not in itself sufficient for having indivisibility,




dicitur quod conditiones quaedam materiae et accidentia individui,




it is said that certain states of matter, and (certain) accidents of an indivisible thing,




sicut esse hic et esse nun, individuant, a quibus abstrahit ration
universalis.




such as here-ness and now-ness, are indivisible, from which the Universal concept abstracted.



The last four words are untranslatable: the easiest solution would be to read rationes universalis as accusative plural: 'from which he has derived the universal concepts,' or '...the universal principles.'






share|improve this answer
























  • Aha, and we find someone who actually understands what the words mean in a metaphysical context! +1

    – Draconis
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    As I mentioned in my answer, I'm pretty confident that "having indivisibility" isn't a good translation of "individuare," but I'm willing to be corrected!

    – brianpck
    2 hours ago



















1














It looks like this word comes from a verb *indīviduāre, which I've never seen before and can't find in Lewis and Short.



So I'd say it's a one-off formation from indīviduus "indivisible, inseparable". It's hard to tell without context, but I'm guessing it means something like "to be inseparable"; the gerund is then "being inseparable".



EDIT: Now that there's context provided:



Oh, dear, this is some of the densest Latin I've had to translate! I'm pretty sure I've messed up some of the technical terms, since I'm not used to metaphysics vocabulary, but let's see here…




quia materia non est per se sufficiens ad individuandum, dicitur quod conditiones quaedam materiae et accidentia individui, sicut esse hic et esse nun, individuant, a quibus abstrahit ratio universalis



Because having substance in and of itself isn't enough to be indivisible, it's said that certain states of that substance and certain properties of an indivisible thing, like "being here" and "being now", are indivisible. From these we can derive a universal theory.




EDIT: Many thanks to Hugh for his metaphysics understanding! Updated my translation.






share|improve this answer


























  • Thanks. I add a context to the question

    – Ali Nikzad
    5 hours ago













  • @Draconis Now you'll have to up-date it all over again.

    – Hugh
    2 hours ago



















1














Siger de Brabant was one of the "Latin Averroists", who were famously criticized by such thinkers as Thomas Aquinas and Bonaventure for rationalist tendencies.



Individuation is an important philosophical concept with a wide range of uses, and basically refers to how universals (such as "dog" and "man") are instantiated in individuals (such as "Fido" and "Socrates"). Jorge E. Gracia wrote a monumental study on the issue: Individuation in Scholasticism. The Later Middle Ages and the Counter-Reformation 1150-1650



The best translation of "individuare" is "to individuate": it is a transitive verb whose subject is what makes a universal form actually individual. According to Aristotelian hylomorphism, "matter" is the usual candidate for the so-called "principium individuationis," i.e. "principle of individuation." Here is my full translation in light of that:




Since matter is not sufficient in itself to individuate, it is said that certain conditions of the matter and accidents of the individual, such as "being here" and "being now," individuate, from which universal reason abstracts.




The only part that I am hesitant about is the end: I would have expected "abstrahitur," since "ratio universalis" usually refers to a "universal account," i.e. "dog-ness." An account is abstracted, according to Scholastic terminology, and does not do the abstracting, which is the work of reason. By suspicion, which I don't have the time to confirm, is that this is a relic of Siger's Averroism: Averroes famously taught that the so-called "agent intellect," which abstracts universal concepts, is not particular to individuals, but that it is common to all men. He might plausibly refer to it as "universalis ratio," i.e. the reason shared by all people.






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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1














    This seems to me to be part of the debate about Universals, and especially about Abstract nouns. An Essence which is universal, unchanging,and indivisible, is distinct from an
    Accidental like colour, position, size which is variable, inconstant and can be divided up.




    quia materia non est per se sufficiens ad individuandum,




    Because matter is not in itself sufficient for having indivisibility,




    dicitur quod conditiones quaedam materiae et accidentia individui,




    it is said that certain states of matter, and (certain) accidents of an indivisible thing,




    sicut esse hic et esse nun, individuant, a quibus abstrahit ration
    universalis.




    such as here-ness and now-ness, are indivisible, from which the Universal concept abstracted.



    The last four words are untranslatable: the easiest solution would be to read rationes universalis as accusative plural: 'from which he has derived the universal concepts,' or '...the universal principles.'






    share|improve this answer
























    • Aha, and we find someone who actually understands what the words mean in a metaphysical context! +1

      – Draconis
      3 hours ago






    • 1





      As I mentioned in my answer, I'm pretty confident that "having indivisibility" isn't a good translation of "individuare," but I'm willing to be corrected!

      – brianpck
      2 hours ago
















    1














    This seems to me to be part of the debate about Universals, and especially about Abstract nouns. An Essence which is universal, unchanging,and indivisible, is distinct from an
    Accidental like colour, position, size which is variable, inconstant and can be divided up.




    quia materia non est per se sufficiens ad individuandum,




    Because matter is not in itself sufficient for having indivisibility,




    dicitur quod conditiones quaedam materiae et accidentia individui,




    it is said that certain states of matter, and (certain) accidents of an indivisible thing,




    sicut esse hic et esse nun, individuant, a quibus abstrahit ration
    universalis.




    such as here-ness and now-ness, are indivisible, from which the Universal concept abstracted.



    The last four words are untranslatable: the easiest solution would be to read rationes universalis as accusative plural: 'from which he has derived the universal concepts,' or '...the universal principles.'






    share|improve this answer
























    • Aha, and we find someone who actually understands what the words mean in a metaphysical context! +1

      – Draconis
      3 hours ago






    • 1





      As I mentioned in my answer, I'm pretty confident that "having indivisibility" isn't a good translation of "individuare," but I'm willing to be corrected!

      – brianpck
      2 hours ago














    1












    1








    1







    This seems to me to be part of the debate about Universals, and especially about Abstract nouns. An Essence which is universal, unchanging,and indivisible, is distinct from an
    Accidental like colour, position, size which is variable, inconstant and can be divided up.




    quia materia non est per se sufficiens ad individuandum,




    Because matter is not in itself sufficient for having indivisibility,




    dicitur quod conditiones quaedam materiae et accidentia individui,




    it is said that certain states of matter, and (certain) accidents of an indivisible thing,




    sicut esse hic et esse nun, individuant, a quibus abstrahit ration
    universalis.




    such as here-ness and now-ness, are indivisible, from which the Universal concept abstracted.



    The last four words are untranslatable: the easiest solution would be to read rationes universalis as accusative plural: 'from which he has derived the universal concepts,' or '...the universal principles.'






    share|improve this answer













    This seems to me to be part of the debate about Universals, and especially about Abstract nouns. An Essence which is universal, unchanging,and indivisible, is distinct from an
    Accidental like colour, position, size which is variable, inconstant and can be divided up.




    quia materia non est per se sufficiens ad individuandum,




    Because matter is not in itself sufficient for having indivisibility,




    dicitur quod conditiones quaedam materiae et accidentia individui,




    it is said that certain states of matter, and (certain) accidents of an indivisible thing,




    sicut esse hic et esse nun, individuant, a quibus abstrahit ration
    universalis.




    such as here-ness and now-ness, are indivisible, from which the Universal concept abstracted.



    The last four words are untranslatable: the easiest solution would be to read rationes universalis as accusative plural: 'from which he has derived the universal concepts,' or '...the universal principles.'







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered 3 hours ago









    HughHugh

    5,7552717




    5,7552717













    • Aha, and we find someone who actually understands what the words mean in a metaphysical context! +1

      – Draconis
      3 hours ago






    • 1





      As I mentioned in my answer, I'm pretty confident that "having indivisibility" isn't a good translation of "individuare," but I'm willing to be corrected!

      – brianpck
      2 hours ago



















    • Aha, and we find someone who actually understands what the words mean in a metaphysical context! +1

      – Draconis
      3 hours ago






    • 1





      As I mentioned in my answer, I'm pretty confident that "having indivisibility" isn't a good translation of "individuare," but I'm willing to be corrected!

      – brianpck
      2 hours ago

















    Aha, and we find someone who actually understands what the words mean in a metaphysical context! +1

    – Draconis
    3 hours ago





    Aha, and we find someone who actually understands what the words mean in a metaphysical context! +1

    – Draconis
    3 hours ago




    1




    1





    As I mentioned in my answer, I'm pretty confident that "having indivisibility" isn't a good translation of "individuare," but I'm willing to be corrected!

    – brianpck
    2 hours ago





    As I mentioned in my answer, I'm pretty confident that "having indivisibility" isn't a good translation of "individuare," but I'm willing to be corrected!

    – brianpck
    2 hours ago











    1














    It looks like this word comes from a verb *indīviduāre, which I've never seen before and can't find in Lewis and Short.



    So I'd say it's a one-off formation from indīviduus "indivisible, inseparable". It's hard to tell without context, but I'm guessing it means something like "to be inseparable"; the gerund is then "being inseparable".



    EDIT: Now that there's context provided:



    Oh, dear, this is some of the densest Latin I've had to translate! I'm pretty sure I've messed up some of the technical terms, since I'm not used to metaphysics vocabulary, but let's see here…




    quia materia non est per se sufficiens ad individuandum, dicitur quod conditiones quaedam materiae et accidentia individui, sicut esse hic et esse nun, individuant, a quibus abstrahit ratio universalis



    Because having substance in and of itself isn't enough to be indivisible, it's said that certain states of that substance and certain properties of an indivisible thing, like "being here" and "being now", are indivisible. From these we can derive a universal theory.




    EDIT: Many thanks to Hugh for his metaphysics understanding! Updated my translation.






    share|improve this answer


























    • Thanks. I add a context to the question

      – Ali Nikzad
      5 hours ago













    • @Draconis Now you'll have to up-date it all over again.

      – Hugh
      2 hours ago
















    1














    It looks like this word comes from a verb *indīviduāre, which I've never seen before and can't find in Lewis and Short.



    So I'd say it's a one-off formation from indīviduus "indivisible, inseparable". It's hard to tell without context, but I'm guessing it means something like "to be inseparable"; the gerund is then "being inseparable".



    EDIT: Now that there's context provided:



    Oh, dear, this is some of the densest Latin I've had to translate! I'm pretty sure I've messed up some of the technical terms, since I'm not used to metaphysics vocabulary, but let's see here…




    quia materia non est per se sufficiens ad individuandum, dicitur quod conditiones quaedam materiae et accidentia individui, sicut esse hic et esse nun, individuant, a quibus abstrahit ratio universalis



    Because having substance in and of itself isn't enough to be indivisible, it's said that certain states of that substance and certain properties of an indivisible thing, like "being here" and "being now", are indivisible. From these we can derive a universal theory.




    EDIT: Many thanks to Hugh for his metaphysics understanding! Updated my translation.






    share|improve this answer


























    • Thanks. I add a context to the question

      – Ali Nikzad
      5 hours ago













    • @Draconis Now you'll have to up-date it all over again.

      – Hugh
      2 hours ago














    1












    1








    1







    It looks like this word comes from a verb *indīviduāre, which I've never seen before and can't find in Lewis and Short.



    So I'd say it's a one-off formation from indīviduus "indivisible, inseparable". It's hard to tell without context, but I'm guessing it means something like "to be inseparable"; the gerund is then "being inseparable".



    EDIT: Now that there's context provided:



    Oh, dear, this is some of the densest Latin I've had to translate! I'm pretty sure I've messed up some of the technical terms, since I'm not used to metaphysics vocabulary, but let's see here…




    quia materia non est per se sufficiens ad individuandum, dicitur quod conditiones quaedam materiae et accidentia individui, sicut esse hic et esse nun, individuant, a quibus abstrahit ratio universalis



    Because having substance in and of itself isn't enough to be indivisible, it's said that certain states of that substance and certain properties of an indivisible thing, like "being here" and "being now", are indivisible. From these we can derive a universal theory.




    EDIT: Many thanks to Hugh for his metaphysics understanding! Updated my translation.






    share|improve this answer















    It looks like this word comes from a verb *indīviduāre, which I've never seen before and can't find in Lewis and Short.



    So I'd say it's a one-off formation from indīviduus "indivisible, inseparable". It's hard to tell without context, but I'm guessing it means something like "to be inseparable"; the gerund is then "being inseparable".



    EDIT: Now that there's context provided:



    Oh, dear, this is some of the densest Latin I've had to translate! I'm pretty sure I've messed up some of the technical terms, since I'm not used to metaphysics vocabulary, but let's see here…




    quia materia non est per se sufficiens ad individuandum, dicitur quod conditiones quaedam materiae et accidentia individui, sicut esse hic et esse nun, individuant, a quibus abstrahit ratio universalis



    Because having substance in and of itself isn't enough to be indivisible, it's said that certain states of that substance and certain properties of an indivisible thing, like "being here" and "being now", are indivisible. From these we can derive a universal theory.




    EDIT: Many thanks to Hugh for his metaphysics understanding! Updated my translation.







    share|improve this answer














    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited 3 hours ago

























    answered 7 hours ago









    DraconisDraconis

    19.4k22780




    19.4k22780













    • Thanks. I add a context to the question

      – Ali Nikzad
      5 hours ago













    • @Draconis Now you'll have to up-date it all over again.

      – Hugh
      2 hours ago



















    • Thanks. I add a context to the question

      – Ali Nikzad
      5 hours ago













    • @Draconis Now you'll have to up-date it all over again.

      – Hugh
      2 hours ago

















    Thanks. I add a context to the question

    – Ali Nikzad
    5 hours ago







    Thanks. I add a context to the question

    – Ali Nikzad
    5 hours ago















    @Draconis Now you'll have to up-date it all over again.

    – Hugh
    2 hours ago





    @Draconis Now you'll have to up-date it all over again.

    – Hugh
    2 hours ago











    1














    Siger de Brabant was one of the "Latin Averroists", who were famously criticized by such thinkers as Thomas Aquinas and Bonaventure for rationalist tendencies.



    Individuation is an important philosophical concept with a wide range of uses, and basically refers to how universals (such as "dog" and "man") are instantiated in individuals (such as "Fido" and "Socrates"). Jorge E. Gracia wrote a monumental study on the issue: Individuation in Scholasticism. The Later Middle Ages and the Counter-Reformation 1150-1650



    The best translation of "individuare" is "to individuate": it is a transitive verb whose subject is what makes a universal form actually individual. According to Aristotelian hylomorphism, "matter" is the usual candidate for the so-called "principium individuationis," i.e. "principle of individuation." Here is my full translation in light of that:




    Since matter is not sufficient in itself to individuate, it is said that certain conditions of the matter and accidents of the individual, such as "being here" and "being now," individuate, from which universal reason abstracts.




    The only part that I am hesitant about is the end: I would have expected "abstrahitur," since "ratio universalis" usually refers to a "universal account," i.e. "dog-ness." An account is abstracted, according to Scholastic terminology, and does not do the abstracting, which is the work of reason. By suspicion, which I don't have the time to confirm, is that this is a relic of Siger's Averroism: Averroes famously taught that the so-called "agent intellect," which abstracts universal concepts, is not particular to individuals, but that it is common to all men. He might plausibly refer to it as "universalis ratio," i.e. the reason shared by all people.






    share|improve this answer






























      1














      Siger de Brabant was one of the "Latin Averroists", who were famously criticized by such thinkers as Thomas Aquinas and Bonaventure for rationalist tendencies.



      Individuation is an important philosophical concept with a wide range of uses, and basically refers to how universals (such as "dog" and "man") are instantiated in individuals (such as "Fido" and "Socrates"). Jorge E. Gracia wrote a monumental study on the issue: Individuation in Scholasticism. The Later Middle Ages and the Counter-Reformation 1150-1650



      The best translation of "individuare" is "to individuate": it is a transitive verb whose subject is what makes a universal form actually individual. According to Aristotelian hylomorphism, "matter" is the usual candidate for the so-called "principium individuationis," i.e. "principle of individuation." Here is my full translation in light of that:




      Since matter is not sufficient in itself to individuate, it is said that certain conditions of the matter and accidents of the individual, such as "being here" and "being now," individuate, from which universal reason abstracts.




      The only part that I am hesitant about is the end: I would have expected "abstrahitur," since "ratio universalis" usually refers to a "universal account," i.e. "dog-ness." An account is abstracted, according to Scholastic terminology, and does not do the abstracting, which is the work of reason. By suspicion, which I don't have the time to confirm, is that this is a relic of Siger's Averroism: Averroes famously taught that the so-called "agent intellect," which abstracts universal concepts, is not particular to individuals, but that it is common to all men. He might plausibly refer to it as "universalis ratio," i.e. the reason shared by all people.






      share|improve this answer




























        1












        1








        1







        Siger de Brabant was one of the "Latin Averroists", who were famously criticized by such thinkers as Thomas Aquinas and Bonaventure for rationalist tendencies.



        Individuation is an important philosophical concept with a wide range of uses, and basically refers to how universals (such as "dog" and "man") are instantiated in individuals (such as "Fido" and "Socrates"). Jorge E. Gracia wrote a monumental study on the issue: Individuation in Scholasticism. The Later Middle Ages and the Counter-Reformation 1150-1650



        The best translation of "individuare" is "to individuate": it is a transitive verb whose subject is what makes a universal form actually individual. According to Aristotelian hylomorphism, "matter" is the usual candidate for the so-called "principium individuationis," i.e. "principle of individuation." Here is my full translation in light of that:




        Since matter is not sufficient in itself to individuate, it is said that certain conditions of the matter and accidents of the individual, such as "being here" and "being now," individuate, from which universal reason abstracts.




        The only part that I am hesitant about is the end: I would have expected "abstrahitur," since "ratio universalis" usually refers to a "universal account," i.e. "dog-ness." An account is abstracted, according to Scholastic terminology, and does not do the abstracting, which is the work of reason. By suspicion, which I don't have the time to confirm, is that this is a relic of Siger's Averroism: Averroes famously taught that the so-called "agent intellect," which abstracts universal concepts, is not particular to individuals, but that it is common to all men. He might plausibly refer to it as "universalis ratio," i.e. the reason shared by all people.






        share|improve this answer















        Siger de Brabant was one of the "Latin Averroists", who were famously criticized by such thinkers as Thomas Aquinas and Bonaventure for rationalist tendencies.



        Individuation is an important philosophical concept with a wide range of uses, and basically refers to how universals (such as "dog" and "man") are instantiated in individuals (such as "Fido" and "Socrates"). Jorge E. Gracia wrote a monumental study on the issue: Individuation in Scholasticism. The Later Middle Ages and the Counter-Reformation 1150-1650



        The best translation of "individuare" is "to individuate": it is a transitive verb whose subject is what makes a universal form actually individual. According to Aristotelian hylomorphism, "matter" is the usual candidate for the so-called "principium individuationis," i.e. "principle of individuation." Here is my full translation in light of that:




        Since matter is not sufficient in itself to individuate, it is said that certain conditions of the matter and accidents of the individual, such as "being here" and "being now," individuate, from which universal reason abstracts.




        The only part that I am hesitant about is the end: I would have expected "abstrahitur," since "ratio universalis" usually refers to a "universal account," i.e. "dog-ness." An account is abstracted, according to Scholastic terminology, and does not do the abstracting, which is the work of reason. By suspicion, which I don't have the time to confirm, is that this is a relic of Siger's Averroism: Averroes famously taught that the so-called "agent intellect," which abstracts universal concepts, is not particular to individuals, but that it is common to all men. He might plausibly refer to it as "universalis ratio," i.e. the reason shared by all people.







        share|improve this answer














        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer








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        answered 2 hours ago









        brianpckbrianpck

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